Matthew 26:65

26:65 Then the high priest tore his clothes and declared, ¹  “He has blasphemed! Why do we still need witnesses? Now ²  you have heard the blasphemy!

Leviticus 24:16

24:16 and one who misuses ³  the name of the Lord must surely be put to death. The whole congregation must surely stone him, whether he is a foreigner or a native citizen; when he misuses the Name he must be put to death.

Mark 14:64

14:64 You have heard the blasphemy! What is your verdict?” ⁴  They all condemned him as deserving death.

John 10:33-36

10:33 The Jewish leaders ⁵  replied, ⁶  “We are not going to stone you for a good deed ⁷  but for blasphemy, ⁸  because ⁹  you, a man, are claiming to be God.” ¹⁰ 

10:34 Jesus answered, ¹¹  “Is it not written in your law, ‘I said, you are gods’? ¹²  10:35 If those people to whom the word of God came were called ‘gods’ (and the scripture cannot be broken), ¹³  10:36 do you say about the one whom the Father set apart ¹⁴  and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’?

Acts 6:11-13

6:11 Then they secretly instigated ¹⁵  some men to say, “We have heard this man ¹⁶  speaking blasphemous words against Moses and God.” 6:12 They incited the people, the ¹⁷  elders, and the experts in the law; ¹⁸  then they approached Stephen, ¹⁹  seized him, and brought him before the council. ²⁰  6:13 They brought forward false witnesses who said, “This man does not stop saying things against this holy place ²¹  and the law. ²² 

[26:65]  ¹ tn Grk “the high priest tore his clothes, saying.”

[26:65]  ² tn Grk “Behold now.” The Greek word ἰδού (idou) has not been translated because it has no exact English equivalent here, but adds interest and emphasis (BDAG 468 s.v. 1).

[24:16]  ³ sn See the note on v. 11 above.

[14:64]  ⁴ tn Grk “What do you think?”

[10:33]  ⁵ tn Or “the Jewish authorities”; Grk “the Jews.” Here again the phrase refers to the Jewish leaders. See the notes on the phrase “Jewish people” in v. 19 and “Jewish leaders” in vv. 24, 31.

[10:33]  ⁶ tn Grk “answered him.”

[10:33]  ⁷ tn Or “good work.”

[10:33]  ⁸ sn This is the first time the official charge of blasphemy is voiced openly in the Fourth Gospel (although it was implicit in John 8:59).

[10:33]  ⁹ tn Grk “and because.”

[10:33]  ¹⁰ tn Grk “you, a man, make yourself to be God.”

[10:34]  ¹¹ tn Grk “answered them.”

[10:34]  ¹² sn A quotation from Ps 82:6. Technically the Psalms are not part of the OT “law” (which usually referred to the five books of Moses), but occasionally the term “law” was applied to the entire OT, as here. The problem in this verse concerns the meaning of Jesus’ quotation from Ps 82:6. It is important to look at the OT context: The whole line reads “I say, you are gods, sons of the Most High, all of you.” Jesus will pick up on the term “sons of the Most High” in 10:36, where he refers to himself as the Son of God. The psalm was understood in rabbinic circles as an attack on unjust judges who, though they have been given the title “gods” because of their quasi-divine function of exercising judgment, are just as mortal as other men. What is the argument here? It is often thought to be as follows: If it was an OT practice to refer to men like the judges as gods, and not blasphemy, why did the Jewish authorities object when this term was applied to Jesus? This really doesn’t seem to fit the context, however, since if that were the case Jesus would not be making any claim for “divinity” for himself over and above any other human being – and therefore he would not be subject to the charge of blasphemy. Rather, this is evidently a case of arguing from the lesser to the greater, a common form of rabbinic argument. The reason the OT judges could be called gods is because they were vehicles of the word of God (cf. 10:35). But granting that premise, Jesus deserves much more than they to be called God. He is the Word incarnate, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world to save the world (10:36). In light of the prologue to the Gospel of John, it seems this interpretation would have been most natural for the author. If it is permissible to call men “gods” because they were the vehicles of the word of God, how much more permissible is it to use the word “God” of him who is the Word of God?

[10:35]  ¹³ sn The parenthetical note And the scripture cannot be broken belongs to Jesus’ words rather than the author’s. Not only does Jesus appeal to the OT to defend himself against the charge of blasphemy, but he also adds that the scripture cannot be “broken.” In this context he does not explain precisely what is meant by “broken,” but it is not too hard to determine. Jesus’ argument depended on the exact word used in the context of Ps 82:6. If any other word for “judge” had been used in the psalm, his argument would have been meaningless. Since the scriptures do use this word in Ps 82:6, the argument is binding, because they cannot be “broken” in the sense of being shown to be in error.

[10:36]  ¹⁴ tn Or “dedicated.”

[6:11]  ¹⁵ tn Another translation would be “they suborned” (but this term is not in common usage). “Instigate (secretly), suborn” is given by BDAG 1036 s.v. ὑποβάλλω.

[6:11]  ¹⁶ tn Grk “heard him”; but since this is direct discourse, it is more natural (and clearer) to specify the referent (Stephen) as “this man.”

[6:12]  ¹⁷ tn Grk “and the,” but καί (kai) has not been translated since English normally uses a coordinating conjunction only between the last two elements in a series of three or more.

[6:12]  ¹⁸ tn Or “and the scribes.” See the note on the phrase “experts in the law” in 4:5.

[6:12]  ¹⁹ tn Grk “approaching, they seized him”; the referent (Stephen) has been specified in the translation for clarity.

[6:12]  ²⁰ tn Or “the Sanhedrin” (the highest legal, legislative, and judicial body among the Jews). Stephen suffers just as Peter and John did.

[6:13]  ²¹ sn This holy place is a reference to the temple.

[6:13]  ²² sn The law refers to the law of Moses. It elaborates the nature of the blasphemy in v. 11. To speak against God’s law in Torah was to blaspheme God (Deut 28:15-19). On the Jewish view of false witnesses, see Exod 19:16-18; 20:16; m. Sanhedrin 3.6; 5.1-5. Stephen’s speech in Acts 7 may indicate why the temple was mentioned.