John 3:2
Context3:2 came to Jesus 1 at night 2 and said to him, “Rabbi, we know that you are a teacher who has come from God. For no one could perform the miraculous signs 3 that you do unless God is with him.”
John 4:10
Context4:10 Jesus answered 4 her, “If you had known 5 the gift of God and who it is who said to you, ‘Give me some water 6 to drink,’ you would have asked him, and he would have given you living water.” 7
John 8:44
Context8:44 You people 8 are from 9 your father the devil, and you want to do what your father desires. 10 He 11 was a murderer from the beginning, and does not uphold the truth, 12 because there is no truth in him. Whenever he lies, 13 he speaks according to his own nature, 14 because he is a liar and the father of lies. 15
John 9:16
Context9:16 Then some of the Pharisees began to say, 16 “This man is not from God, because he does not observe 17 the Sabbath.” 18 But others said, “How can a man who is a sinner perform 19 such miraculous signs?” Thus there was a division 20 among them.
John 13:1
Context13:1 Just before the Passover feast, Jesus knew that his time 21 had come to depart 22 from this world to the Father. Having loved his own who were in the world, he now loved them to the very end. 23
John 19:38
Context19:38 After this, Joseph of Arimathea, a disciple of Jesus (but secretly, because he feared the Jewish leaders 24 ), 25 asked Pilate if he could remove the body of Jesus. Pilate 26 gave him permission, so he went and took the body away. 27
John 20:15
Context20:15 Jesus said to her, “Woman, why are you weeping? Who are you looking for?” Because she 28 thought he was the gardener, she said to him, “Sir, if you have carried him away, tell me where you have put him, and I will take him.”
John 20:19
Context20:19 On the evening of that day, the first day of the week, the disciples had gathered together 29 and locked the doors 30 of the place 31 because they were afraid of the Jewish leaders. 32 Jesus came and stood among them and said to them, “Peace be with you.”
John 20:25
Context20:25 The other disciples told him, “We have seen the Lord!” But he replied, 33 “Unless I see the wounds 34 from the nails in his hands, and put my finger into the wounds from the nails, and put my hand into his side, I will never believe it!” 35
John 21:15
Context21:15 Then when they had finished breakfast, Jesus said to Simon Peter, “Simon, son of John, 36 do you love me more than these do?” 37 He replied, 38 “Yes, Lord, you know I love you.” 39 Jesus 40 told him, “Feed my lambs.”
John 21:17
Context21:17 Jesus 41 said 42 a third time, “Simon, son of John, do you love me?” Peter was distressed 43 that Jesus 44 asked 45 him a third time, “Do you love me?” and said, 46 “Lord, you know everything. You know that I love you.” Jesus 47 replied, 48 “Feed my sheep.


[3:2] 1 tn Grk “him”; the referent (Jesus) has been specified in the translation for clarity.
[3:2] 2 tn Or “during the night.”
[3:2] 3 sn The reference to signs (σημεῖα, shmeia) forms a link with John 2:23-25. Those people in Jerusalem believed in Jesus because of the signs he had performed. Nicodemus had apparently seen them too. But for Nicodemus all the signs meant is that Jesus was a great teacher sent from God. His approach to Jesus was well-intentioned but theologically inadequate; he had failed to grasp the messianic implications of the miraculous signs.
[4:10] 4 tn Grk “answered and said to her.”
[4:10] 6 tn The phrase “some water” is supplied as the understood direct object of the infinitive πεῖν (pein).
[4:10] 7 tn This is a second class conditional sentence in Greek.
[8:44] 7 tn The word “people” is supplied in the translation to clarify that the Greek pronoun and verb are plural.
[8:44] 8 tn Many translations read “You are of your father the devil” (KJV, ASV, RSV, NASB) or “You belong to your father, the devil” (NIV), but the Greek preposition ἐκ (ek) emphasizes the idea of source or origin. Jesus said his opponents were the devil’s very offspring (a statement which would certainly infuriate them).
[8:44] 9 tn Grk “the desires of your father you want to do.”
[8:44] 10 tn Grk “That one” (referring to the devil).
[8:44] 11 tn Grk “he does not stand in the truth” (in the sense of maintaining, upholding, or accepting the validity of it).
[8:44] 12 tn Grk “Whenever he speaks the lie.”
[8:44] 13 tn Grk “he speaks from his own.”
[8:44] 14 tn Grk “because he is a liar and the father of it.”
[9:16] 10 tn As a response to the answers of the man who used to be blind, the use of the imperfect tense in the reply of the Pharisees is best translated as an ingressive imperfect (“began to say” or “started saying”).
[9:16] 11 tn Grk “he does not keep.”
[9:16] 12 sn The Jewish religious leaders considered the work involved in making the mud to be a violation of the Sabbath.
[9:16] 14 tn Or “So there was discord.”
[13:1] 14 tn Grk “that he should depart.” The ἵνα (Jina) clause in Koine Greek frequently encroached on the simple infinitive (for the sake of greater clarity).
[13:1] 15 tn Or “he now loved them completely,” or “he now loved them to the uttermost” (see John 19:30). All of John 13:1 is a single sentence in Greek, although in English this would be unacceptably awkward. At the end of the verse the idiom εἰς τέλος (eis telos) was translated literally as “to the end” and the modern equivalents given in the note above, because there is an important lexical link between this passage and John 19:30, τετέλεσται (tetelestai, “It is ended”).
[19:38] 16 tn Or “the Jewish authorities”; Grk “the Jews.” Here the phrase refers to the Jewish leaders, especially the Pharisees (see John 12:42). See also the note on the phrase “Jewish leaders” in v. 7.
[19:38] 17 sn This is a parenthetical note by the author.
[19:38] 18 tn Grk “And Pilate.” The conjunction καί (kai, “and”) has not been translated here in keeping with the tendency of contemporary English style to use shorter sentences.
[19:38] 19 tn Grk “took away his body.”
[20:15] 19 tn Grk “that one” (referring to Mary Magdalene).
[20:19] 22 tn Although the words “had gathered together” are omitted in some of the earliest and best
[20:19] 23 tn Grk “the doors were shut”; “locked” conveys a more appropriate idea for the modern English reader.
[20:19] 24 tn Grk “where they were.”
[20:19] 25 tn Or “the Jewish authorities”; Grk “the Jews.” In NT usage the term ᾿Ιουδαῖοι (Ioudaioi) may refer to the entire Jewish people, the residents of Jerusalem and surrounding territory, the authorities in Jerusalem, or merely those who were hostile to Jesus. (For further information see R. G. Bratcher, “‘The Jews’ in the Gospel of John,” BT 26 [1975]: 401-9.) Here the phrase refers to the Jewish leaders.
[20:25] 25 tn Grk “but he said to them.”
[20:25] 27 tn The word “it” is not in the Greek text but is implied. Direct objects were often omitted in Greek when clear from the context. The use of “it” here as direct object of the verb πιστεύσω (pisteusw) specifies exactly what Thomas was refusing to believe: that Jesus had risen from the dead, as reported by his fellow disciples. Otherwise the English reader may be left with the impression Thomas was refusing to “believe in” Jesus, or “believe Jesus to be the Christ.” The dramatic tension in this narrative is heightened when Thomas, on seeing for himself the risen Christ, believes more than just the resurrection (see John 20:28).
[21:15] 28 tc The majority of
[21:15] 29 tn To whom (or what) does “these” (τούτων, toutwn) refer? Three possibilities are suggested: (1) τούτων should be understood as neuter, “these things,” referring to the boats, nets, and fishing gear nearby. In light of Peter’s statement in 21:3, “I am going fishing,” some have understood Peter to have renounced his commission in light of his denials of Jesus. Jesus, as he restores Peter and forgives him for his denials, is asking Peter if he really loves his previous vocation more than he loves Jesus. Three things may be said in evaluation of this view: (a) it is not at all necessary to understand Peter’s statement in 21:3 as a renouncement of his discipleship, as this view of the meaning of τούτων would imply; (b) it would probably be more likely that the verb would be repeated in such a construction (see 7:31 for an example where the verb is repeated); and (c) as R. E. Brown has observed (John [AB], 2:1103) by Johannine standards the choice being offered to Peter between material things and the risen Jesus would seem rather ridiculous, especially after the disciples had realized whom it was they were dealing with (the Lord, see v. 12). (2) τούτων refers to the other disciples, meaning “Do you love me more than you love these other disciples?” The same objection mentioned as (c) under (1) would apply here: Could the author, in light of the realization of who Jesus is which has come to the disciples after the resurrection, and which he has just mentioned in 21:12, seriously present Peter as being offered a choice between the other disciples and the risen Jesus? This leaves option (3), that τούτων refers to the other disciples, meaning “Do you love me more than these other disciples do?” It seems likely that there is some irony here: Peter had boasted in 13:37, “I will lay down my life for you,” and the synoptics present Peter as boasting even more explicitly of his loyalty to Jesus (“Even if they all fall away, I will not,” Matt 26:33; Mark 14:29). Thus the semantic force of what Jesus asks Peter here amounts to something like “Now, after you have denied me three times, as I told you you would, can you still affirm that you love me more than these other disciples do?” The addition of the auxiliary verb “do” in the translation is used to suggest to the English reader the third interpretation, which is the preferred one.
[21:15] 30 tn Grk “He said to him.”
[21:15] 31 tn Is there a significant difference in meaning between the two words for love used in the passage, ἀγαπάω and φιλέω (agapaw and filew)? Aside from Origen, who saw a distinction in the meaning of the two words, most of the Greek Fathers like Chrysostom and Cyril of Alexandria, saw no real difference of meaning. Neither did Augustine nor the translators of the Itala (Old Latin). This was also the view of the Reformation Greek scholars Erasmus and Grotius. The suggestion that a distinction in meaning should be seen comes primarily from a number of British scholars of the 19th century, especially Trench, Westcott, and Plummer. It has been picked up by others such as Spicq, Lenski, and Hendriksen. But most modern scholars decline to see a real difference in the meaning of the two words in this context, among them Bernard, Moffatt, Bonsirven, Bultmann, Barrett, Brown, Morris, Haenchen, and Beasley-Murray. There are three significant reasons for seeing no real difference in the meaning of ἀγαπάω and φιλέω in these verses: (1) the author has a habit of introducing slight stylistic variations in repeated material without any significant difference in meaning (compare, for example, 3:3 with 3:5, and 7:34 with 13:33). An examination of the uses of ἀγαπάω and φιλέω in the Fourth Gospel seems to indicate a general interchangeability between the two. Both terms are used of God’s love for man (3:16, 16:27); of the Father’s love for the Son (3:35, 5:20); of Jesus’ love for men (11:5, 11:3); of the love of men for men (13:34, 15:19); and of the love of men for Jesus (8:42, 16:27). (2) If (as seems probable) the original conversation took place in Aramaic (or possibly Hebrew), there would not have been any difference expressed because both Aramaic and Hebrew have only one basic word for love. In the LXX both ἀγαπάω and φιλέω are used to translate the same Hebrew word for love, although ἀγαπάω is more frequent. It is significant that in the Syriac version of the NT only one verb is used to translate vv. 15-17 (Syriac is very similar linguistically to Palestinian Aramaic). (3) Peter’s answers to the questions asked with ἀγαπάω are ‘yes’ even though he answers using the verb φιλέω. If he is being asked to love Jesus on a higher or more spiritual level his answers give no indication of this, and one would be forced to say (in order to maintain a consistent distinction between the two verbs) that Jesus finally concedes defeat and accepts only the lower form of love which is all that Peter is capable of offering. Thus it seems best to regard the interchange between ἀγαπάω and φιλέω in these verses as a minor stylistic variation of the author, consistent with his use of minor variations in repeated material elsewhere, and not indicative of any real difference in meaning. Thus no attempt has been made to distinguish between the two Greek words in the translation.
[21:15] 32 tn Grk “He”; the referent (Jesus) has been specified in the translation for clarity.
[21:17] 31 tn Grk “He”; the referent (Jesus) has been specified in the translation for clarity.
[21:17] 32 tn Grk “said to him.” The words “to him” are clear from the context and slightly redundant in English.
[21:17] 34 tn Grk “he”; the referent (Jesus) has been specified in the translation for clarity.
[21:17] 36 tn Grk “and said to him.” The words “to him” are clear from the context and slightly redundant in English.
[21:17] 37 tc ‡ Most witnesses, especially later ones (A Θ Ψ Ë13 Ï), read ὁ ᾿Ιησοῦς (Jo Ihsou", “Jesus”) here, while B C have ᾿Ιησοῦς without the article and א D W Ë1 33 565 al lat lack both. Because of the rapid verbal exchange in this pericope, “Jesus” is virtually required for clarity, providing a temptation to scribes to add the name. Further, the name normally occurs with the article. Although it is possible that B C accidentally omitted the article with the name, it is just as likely that they added the simple name to the text for clarity’s sake, while other witnesses added the article as well. The omission of ὁ ᾿Ιησοῦς thus seems most likely to be authentic. NA27 includes the words in brackets, indicating some doubts as to their authenticity.