hebrew:has (NET) - Notes Search

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(Num 23:23)

³tn The Niphal imperfect here carries the nuance of obligation – one has to say in amazement that God has done something marvelous or “it must be said.”

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(Num 26:5)

¹tc The Hebrew text has no preposition here, but one has been supplied in the translation for clarity. Cf. vv. 23, 30, 31, 32.

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(Deu 2:7)

⁵tn Heb “the Lord your God has.” This has been replaced in the translation by the first person pronoun (“I”) in keeping with English style.

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(Deu 11:22)

²tn Heb “commanding you to do it.” For stylistic reasons, to avoid redundancy, “giving” has been used in the translation and “to do it” has been left untranslated.

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(Jdg 1:7)

³tn Heb “Just as I did, so God has repaid me.” Note that the phrase “to them” has been supplied in the translation to clarify what is meant.

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(Jdg 17:4)

²tn The Hebrew text has “and gave it.” The referent (the pieces of silver) has been specified in the translation for clarity.

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(1Sa 25:39)

²tn Heb “his servant he has held back from evil, and the evil of Nabal the Lord has turned back on his head.”

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(1Ki 18:13)

¹tn Heb “Has it not been told to my master what I did…?” The rhetorical question expects an answer, “Of course it has!”

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(2Ki 25:6)

²tn The Hebrew text has the plural form of the verb, but the parallel passage in Jer 52:9 has the singular.

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(1Ch 7:25)

²tc The Hebrew text has simply “Resheph,” but the phrase “his son” has probably been accidentally omitted, since the names before and after this one include the phrase.

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(Job 4:8)

¹tn The perfect verb here represents the indefinite past. It has no specific sighting in mind, but refers to each time he has seen the wicked do this.

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(Job 5:1)

³tn The LXX has rendered “holy ones” as “holy angels” (cf. TEV, CEV, NLT). The LXX has interpreted the verb in the colon too freely: “if you will see.”

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(Job 19:2)

²tn The MT has דָּכָא (dakha’), “to crush” in the Piel. The LXX, however, has a more general word which means “to destroy.”

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(Job 24:22)

¹tn God has to be the subject of this clause. None is stated in the Hebrew text, but “God” has been supplied in the translation for clarity.

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(Pro 30:32)

¹tn The construction has the בְּ (bet) preposition with the Hitpael infinitive construct, forming a temporal clause. This clause explains the way in which the person has acted foolishly.

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(Isa 37:18)

¹tn The Hebrew text here has “all the lands,” but the parallel text in 2 Kgs 19:17 has “the nations.”

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(Isa 42:20)

¹tn The consonantal text (Kethib) has a perfect, 2nd person masculine singular; the marginal reading (Qere) has an infinitive absolute, which functions here as a finite verb.

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(Jer 16:14)

²tn Heb “Oracle of the Lord.” The Lord has been speaking; the first person has been utilized in translation to avoid a shift which might create confusion.

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(Jer 16:16)

¹tn Heb “Oracle of the Lord.” The Lord has been speaking; the first person has been utilized in translation to avoid a shift which might create confusion.

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(Jer 32:28)

¹tn Heb “Thus says the Lord.” However, the speech has already been introduced as first person. So the first person style has been retained for smoother narrative style.