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John 1:22

Context
1:22 Then they said to him, “Who are you? Tell us 1  so that we can give an answer to those who sent us. What do you say about yourself?”

John 2:4-5

Context
2:4 Jesus replied, 2  “Woman, 3  why are you saying this to me? 4  My time 5  has not yet come.” 2:5 His mother told the servants, “Whatever he tells you, do it.” 6 

John 2:18

Context

2:18 So then the Jewish leaders 7  responded, 8  “What sign can you show us, since you are doing these things?” 9 

John 6:12

Context
6:12 When they were all satisfied, Jesus 10  said to his disciples, “Gather up the broken pieces that are left over, so that nothing is wasted.”

John 8:5

Context
8:5 In the law Moses commanded us to stone to death 11  such women. 12  What then do you say?”

John 8:43

Context
8:43 Why don’t you understand what I am saying? It is because you cannot accept 13  my teaching. 14 

John 8:46

Context
8:46 Who among you can prove me guilty 15  of any sin? 16  If I am telling you 17  the truth, why don’t you believe me?

John 10:20

Context
10:20 Many of them were saying, “He is possessed by a demon and has lost his mind! 18  Why do you listen to him?”

John 18:23

Context
18:23 Jesus replied, 19  “If I have said something wrong, 20  confirm 21  what is wrong. 22  But if I spoke correctly, why strike me?”

John 21:5

Context
21:5 So Jesus said to them, “Children, you don’t have any fish, 23  do you?” 24  They replied, 25  “No.”
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[1:22]  1 tn The words “Tell us” are not in the Greek but are implied.

[2:4]  2 tn Grk “and Jesus said to her.”

[2:4]  3 sn The term Woman is Jesus’ normal, polite way of addressing women (Matt 15:28, Luke 13:12; John 4:21; 8:10; 19:26; 20:15). But it is unusual for a son to address his mother with this term. The custom in both Hebrew (or Aramaic) and Greek would be for a son to use a qualifying adjective or title. Is there significance in Jesus’ use here? It probably indicates that a new relationship existed between Jesus and his mother once he had embarked on his public ministry. He was no longer or primarily only her son, but the “Son of Man.” This is also suggested by the use of the same term in 19:26 in the scene at the cross, where the beloved disciple is “given” to Mary as her “new” son.

[2:4]  4 tn Grk “Woman, what to me and to you?” (an idiom). The phrase τί ἐμοὶ καὶ σοί, γύναι (ti emoi kai soi, gunai) is Semitic in origin. The equivalent Hebrew expression in the Old Testament had two basic meanings: (1) When one person was unjustly bothering another, the injured party could say “What to me and to you?” meaning, “What have I done to you that you should do this to me?” (Judg 11:12, 2 Chr 35:21, 1 Kgs 17:18). (2) When someone was asked to get involved in a matter he felt was no business of his, he could say to the one asking him, “What to me and to you?” meaning, “That is your business, how am I involved?” (2 Kgs 3:13, Hos 14:8). Option (1) implies hostility, while option (2) implies merely disengagement. Mere disengagement is almost certainly to be understood here as better fitting the context (although some of the Greek Fathers took the remark as a rebuke to Mary, such a rebuke is unlikely).

[2:4]  5 tn Grk “my hour” (referring to the time of Jesus’ crucifixion and return to the Father).

[2:5]  3 tn The pronoun “it” is not in the Greek text, but has been supplied. Direct objects in Greek were often omitted when clear from the context.

[2:18]  4 tn Or “the Jewish authorities”; Grk “the Jews.” In NT usage the term ᾿Ιουδαῖοι (Ioudaioi) may refer to the entire Jewish people, the residents of Jerusalem and surrounding territory, the authorities in Jerusalem, or merely those who were hostile to Jesus. Here the author refers to the authorities or leaders in Jerusalem. (For further information see R. G. Bratcher, “‘The Jews’ in the Gospel of John,” BT 26 [1975]: 401-9.)

[2:18]  5 tn Grk “answered and said to him.”

[2:18]  6 sn The request “What sign can you show us” by Jesus’ adversaries was a request for a defense of his actions – a mark of divine authentication. Whether this was a request for a miracle is not entirely clear. Jesus never obliged such a request. Yet, ironically, the only sign the Jewish leadership will get is that predicted by Jesus in 2:19 – his crucifixion and resurrection. Cf. the “sign of Jonah” in the synoptics (Matt 12:39, 40; Luke 11:29-32).

[6:12]  5 tn Grk “he”; the referent (Jesus) has been specified in the translation for clarity.

[8:5]  6 sn An allusion to Lev 20:10 and Deut 22:22-24.

[8:5]  7 sn The accusers themselves subtly misrepresented the law. The Mosaic law stated that in the case of adultery, both the man and woman must be put to death (Lev 20:10, Deut 22:22), but they mentioned only such women.

[8:43]  7 tn Grk “you cannot hear,” but this is not a reference to deafness, but rather hearing in the sense of listening to something and responding to it.

[8:43]  8 tn Grk “my word.”

[8:46]  8 tn Or “can convict me.”

[8:46]  9 tn Or “of having sinned”; Grk “of sin.”

[8:46]  10 tn Or “if I tell you.”

[10:20]  9 tn Or “is insane.” To translate simply “he is mad” (so KJV, ASV, RSV; “raving mad” NIV) could give the impression that Jesus was angry, while the actual charge was madness or insanity.

[18:23]  10 tn Grk “Jesus answered him.”

[18:23]  11 tn Or “something incorrect.”

[18:23]  12 tn Grk “testify.”

[18:23]  13 tn Or “incorrect.”

[21:5]  11 tn The word προσφάγιον (prosfagion) is unusual. According to BDAG 886 s.v. in Hellenistic Greek it described a side dish to be eaten with bread, and in some contexts was the equivalent of ὄψον (oyon), “fish.” Used in addressing a group of returning fishermen, however, it is quite clear that the speaker had fish in mind.

[21:5]  12 tn Questions prefaced with μή (mh) in Greek anticipate a negative answer. This can sometimes be indicated by using a “tag” at the end in English (here the tag is “do you?”).

[21:5]  13 tn Grk “They answered him.”



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